Published in:
01-09-2007
CME Questions
Published in: Comprehensive Therapy | Issue 1/2007
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1.
All of the following statements about HF-P are true except:
a.
A common form of chronic HF in older women
b.
EF typically normal
c.
Usually requires left ventricular assistive device (LVAD)
d.
Associated with obstructive cardiomyopathy
2.
The relationship between the NYHA and ACC/AHA classification systems is best described by each of the following statements:
a.
The NYHA system is based on overall functional capacity of the patient, and the ACC/AHA system is based on cardiac anatomy and function
b.
The ACC/AHA system has replaced the older NYHA system
c.
The NYHA system is a better indicator of medications required
d.
In both classification systems, optimal therapy will improve patients from advanced stages to early stages
3.
True or false: Most chronic heart failure is caused by underlying coronary artery disease.
a.
True
b.
False
4.
The treatment of ACC/AHA stages A and B chronic heart failure is directed toward
a.
Improving systolic function
b.
Improving diastolic function
c.
Reduction of volume overload
d.
Treatment of hypertension and diabetes
5.
The single best test for evaluating chronic heart failure is
a.
Chest radiograph
b.
EKG
c.
Echocardiogram
d.
BNP
6.
Which of the following statement regarding the chemoprophylaxis of malaria is true?
a.
Chloroloquine remains the mainstay of treatment in all over the endemic areas
b.
Quinine is the first choice for the chemoprophylaxis to sub-Saharan Africa
c.
Atovaquone/proguanil or doxycycline are first-line choice for chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium falciparum areas
d.
For the travel to chloroquine-sensitive regions, give single dose of chloroquine weekly, 1–2 weeks before entering the endemic area and stop immediately after return
e.
Proguanil in combination with chloroquine is recommended for the travelers going to chloroquine-resistant regions
7.
All of the following are known risk factors to develop acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in malaria except:
a.
Gram-negative bacteremia
b.
Thrombocytopenia
c.
Hypoalbuminemia
d.
Pregnancy
e.
Chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum
8.
All of the following are the recognized complications of P. falciparum malaria except:
a.
Nephrotic syndrome
b.
Hemolytic anemia
c.
ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome)
d.
Convulsions
e.
Hypoglycemia
9.
Which of the following statements is true in terms of developing ARDS as a complication of malaria?
a.
It occurs in 50% of cases of plasmodium ovale
b.
It occurs in 3–10% of the cases of P. falciparum
c.
It most commonly occurs with P. malariae infection
d.
It only develops at the peak of bacteremia in any type of malaria
e.
Steroids should be used in severe cases to prevent ARDS
10.
Which of the following statements is true regarding parasite resistance to drugs?
a.
Most of the species in Southeast Asia are Fansidar sensitive
b.
Most of the plasmodium ovale strains are resistant to chloroquine
c.
Malranone (atovaquone/proguanil) has shown no role in the treatment of multidrug-resistant falciparum malaria
d.
Resistance has developed to all classes of antimalarial drugs except artemisinins
e.
Resistance has developed to all classes of antimalarial drugs except halofantrine
11.
Internet dating is
a.
Not in common use
b.
Only used by teens
c.
Used increasingly worldwide
d.
Not a danger even to minor
e.
Screened to prevent cyber crime
12.
Sexual fantasy is
a.
Natural and normal
b.
Pathological
c.
A substitute for a relationship
d.
Only for men
e.
Unnecessary due to TV
13.
Entries on Internet have
a.
To be screened for accuracy
b.
Been used to find companionship
c.
Been used since 1930s
d.
A very high fee for publication
14.
Internet allows
a.
Only local dialogue
b.
Use only to college students
c.
Available use 9 to 5 to cell phones
d.
Connection only in high-rise buildings
e.
Convenient dialogue globally at anytime
15.
Internet advertising is
a.
Solely used to arrange marriages
b.
Totally free
c.
Carefully regulated to prevent fraud
d.
A multi-million dollar method today
e.
Highly reliable
16.
Which one of the following may present with Wolfram syndrome?
a.
Diabetes insipidus
b.
Diabetes mellitus
c.
Optic atrophy
d.
Deafness
e.
All of the above are correct
17.
True or false. The presence of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus together with atrophy of the optic nerve is a sufficient criterion for the diagnosis of Wolfram syndrome.
a.
True
b.
False
18.
True or false. Patients with Wolfram syndrome usually present with DM followed by OA in the first decade, central DI, and sensorineural deafness in the second decade.
a.
True
b.
False
19.
True or false. Patients with Wolfram syndrome show progressive ophthalmologic symptoms that usually occur after diabetes insipitus.
a.
True
b.
False
20.
True or false. The etiology of Wolfram syndrome remains undetermined. Diabetes mellitus could result from hypothalamic degeneration, although loss of pancreatic β-islet cells as part of a specific defect of neuroectodermal amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation-derived cells in the pancreas and in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei has been postulated.
a.
True
b.
False
21.
Which of the following is incorrect?
a.
Persons with prior myocardial infarction, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus should have their blood pressure reduced to <130/80 mmHg
b.
Persons with prior myocardial infarction, hypertension, and chronic renal insufficiency should have their blood pressure reduced to <130/80 mmHg
c.
Class I antiarrhythmic drugs should be given to persons after myocardial infarction
d.
Persons should be treated with beta blockers indefinitely after myocardial infarction if they have no contraindications to use of these drugs
22.
Which of the following is correct?
a.
Amiodarone reduces cardiovascular mortality in persons after myocardial infarction
b.
Persons with prior myocardial infarction should have their serum low-density lipoprotein cholesterol reduced to <70 mg/dl
c.
Calcium channel blockers reduce cardiovascular mortality in persons after myocardial infarction
d.
Estrogen plus progestin reduce cardiovascular mortality in persons after myocardial infarction
23.
Which of the following is correct?
a.
Persons should be treated with aspirin 75–162 mg daily indefinitely after myocardial infarction if they have no contraindications to the use of this drug
b.
Persons should be treated with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors indefinitely after myocardial infarction if they have no contraindications to the use of these drugs
c.
Diabetics with prior myocardial infarction should have their hemoglobin A1c reduced to <7.0%
d.
All of the above
24.
Which of the following is incorrect?
a.
An aldosterone antagonist should be given after myocardial infarction to persons with congestive heart failure and significant renal dysfunction
b.
Overweight persons with prior myocardial infarction should have their body mass index reduced to <25 kg/m2
c.
Persons after myocardial infarction should be treated with clopidogrel 75 mg daily indefinitely if they are intolerant to aspirin
d.
Persons after myocardial infarction should be treated with warfarin if they are intolerant to both aspirin and clopidogrel
25.
Which of the following is correct?
a.
Smokers after myocardial infarction should be encouraged to participate in a smoking cessation program
b.
Persons with severe angina pectoris after myocardial infarction despite optimal medical therapy should be considered for coronary revascularization
c.
Persons after myocardial infarction with a left ventricular ejection fraction <30% should be considered for implantation of a cardioverter–defibrillator
d.
All of the above